Yes I can, as this is just the metric induces by the L-infinty norm. But why did we introduce π andπ?
this post was submitted on 25 Nov 2024
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This is bullshit, it defined but didn't even use the continuous functions πand π.
golang is gonna be fuckin pissed when it finds out
IMSA kid?
Those are backups in case the other functions break down.
I mean, technically, it is true. At least 25% of people can't solve that.
π isnt a metric dumbass, its an orange
Americans will use anything other than metric
But what if it was grown in Europe?
Naranja
So to clarify, definitely European and not African?
I don't know falls to his death
Its probably reasonable to say that 25% of math majors cant solve this, therefore non-math majors aren't people
"sup" without a "\" belongs-to-set symbol \[ and \]
scrΓΆdinger's TeX
I can answer the question. No.
Heβs right.
ππππ
By using π to rate how good this post is(out of 5), i made it a metric for how good this post is
Look at this shmuck, using the supremum of a continuous function on a closed interval when it clearly achieves a maximum. I bet theyβll feel real embarrassed about that one when theyβre falling asleep years from now.
Christ, it's like people just don't even give a fuck about the extreme value theorem anymore?
I get you are joking, but I've seen many literature just using sup for maximum. Maybe for consistency or laziness, idk why
I am waiting for someone to actually answer this
Thanks. I've mostly forgotten real analysis by this point but the meme seemed really familiar, lol.
Thanks for the link. I expected there would be a problem with triangle inequality but didn't want to do the actual proving π
Oh, I expected it to be some unsolved problem.
Nyar!
The function is a homeomorphism on R, so it preserves its topological features.