this post was submitted on 10 Oct 2024
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One of the few things I remember from my French classes in high school was that the letter is called "double V" in that language. Why did English opt for the "U" instead?

You can hear the French pronunciation here if you're unfamiliar with it:

https://www.frenchlearner.com/pronunciation/french-alphabet/

V and W are right next to each other in alphabetical order, which seems to lend further credence to the idea that it should be "Double V" and not "Double U". In fact, the letter U immediately precedes V, so the difference is highlighted in real-time as you go through the alphabet:

  • ...
  • U
  • V
  • W
  • X
  • Y
  • Z

It's obviously not at all important in the grand scheme of things, but I'm just curious why we went the way we did!

Cheers!

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[–] YeetPics@mander.xyz 19 points 5 days ago

Someone changed the font.

[–] PersnickityPenguin@lemm.ee 29 points 5 days ago

When I was first teaching my son the alphabet, we got to “W” and, before I could say it, he called it “two vees!” It was so cute.

[–] MadBob@feddit.nl 26 points 6 days ago (1 children)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/W

The Germanic /w/ phoneme was, therefore, written as ⟨VV⟩ or ⟨uu⟩ (⟨u⟩ and ⟨v⟩ becoming distinct only by the Early Modern period) by the earliest writers of Old English and Old High German, in the 7th or 8th centuries.[8] Gothic (not Latin-based), by contrast, had simply used a letter based on the Greek Υ for the same sound in the 4th century. The digraph ⟨VV⟩/⟨uu⟩ was also used in Medieval Latin to represent Germanic names, including Gothic ones like Wamba.

It is from this ⟨uu⟩ digraph that the modern name "double U" derives. The digraph was commonly used in the spelling of Old High German but only in the earliest texts in Old English, where the /w/ sound soon came to be represented by borrowing the rune ⟨ᚹ⟩, adapted as the Latin letter wynn: ⟨ƿ⟩. In early Middle English, following the 11th-century Norman Conquest, ⟨uu⟩ regained popularity; by 1300, it had taken wynn's place in common use.

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[–] Mabexer@feddit.it 18 points 6 days ago (1 children)

Fun fact, in Italian "w" is sometimes referred to as "doppia v" which is "double v".

[–] evening_push579@feddit.nu 17 points 6 days ago (1 children)

Same in Swedish! “dubbel v”

[–] Foni@lemm.ee 9 points 6 days ago (9 children)
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[–] schnurrito@discuss.tchncs.de 11 points 6 days ago* (last edited 6 days ago) (1 children)

I am not 100% sure of the answer (I am sure there are websites where this is explained), but I am reasonably sure it has to do with the fact that V and U used to not be distinct letters, but variations of the same letter.

I find both of those names silly, I like the fact that my first language (German) doesn't call any letter "double" anything.

[–] wieson@feddit.org 2 points 5 days ago (1 children)

But we have Eszett

(s + z = ß)

[–] schnurrito@discuss.tchncs.de 5 points 5 days ago

which I usually call scharfes S

As someone whose native language has a "vee" and a "wee", the whole "double u/v" always seemed kind of weird.

I know the history of the letter (v turning into u later after being the same letter for centuries) but I never got why some languages stuck with the "double" letter for this long.

[–] BJHanssen@lemmy.world 6 points 6 days ago* (last edited 6 days ago)

I may be wrong about the actual reason for this - as ‘double V’ is also quite common - and it may just end up being some kind of ‘well when the printing press came to England’ thing, but:

In the classical Latin alphabet, the letter ‘V’ was not actually representative of what we today recognise as the /u/ sound (or its variants). It was in fact the written form of the /u/ sound (and related variants). So when the W was introduced to the English alphabet, I guess it was indeed a ‘double /u/‘.

[–] tiefling@lemmy.blahaj.zone 4 points 6 days ago* (last edited 6 days ago)

FWIW Spanish has both, depending on the dialect. I grew up saying doble-u, but I know other countries say doble-ve

[–] GetOffMyLan@programming.dev 4 points 6 days ago* (last edited 6 days ago)

The letter "W" is called "double U" because the Normans invented it by combining two pointed capital letters to represent the sound "w" in Anglo-Saxon words after the Norman Conquest of England in 1066. The name "double U" still indicates how the letter was created.

Before the Norman Conquest, the Latin letter "V" was used to represent both the "v" and "w" sounds. The Anglo-Saxons created a separate character called "wen" to represent the "w" sound. After the Norman Conquest, the Normans combined two pointed capital letters to create the "W" to represent the "w" sound in Anglo-Saxon words.

Ils sont juste bizzare les anglophones.

[–] Nemo@slrpnk.net 224 points 6 days ago (2 children)

well, okay, so:

U, V, and W are all descended from the same letter in Latin. V and W are the consonate versions of that ur-letter and U is the vowel version.

But W is much closer to the remaining vowel sound: We could spell "whiskey" as "uiskey" without really changing the pronuncuation, for example.

So despite the glyph, it's much closer to a U than a V; it's the U that saw glyphic differentiation even though it's V that saw phonic differentiation.

[–] nickwitha_k@lemmy.sdf.org 22 points 5 days ago* (last edited 5 days ago) (3 children)

"uiskey"

That is actually very close to the original Irish words: uisce beatha (ish-kuh ba-ha), meaning "water of life".

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[–] abbadon420@lemm.ee 99 points 6 days ago (3 children)

So to put it in plain words:

The English are an illiterate bunch of alcoholics who base their entire language on the way it's pronounced when you're in the pub.

While the French are a stuck up bunch of pretend aristocrats who based their entire language on the scripts of the court.

[–] flambonkscious@sh.itjust.works 15 points 6 days ago

Thank you. That was helpful

[–] BearOfaTime@lemm.ee 15 points 6 days ago

Wow, not really off the mark.

Upper class English spoke French in Shakespeare's time, seeing the English language as the tongue of the commoners, lower class folk.

Part of what made Shakespeare's plays different - he brought comedy similar to Moliere's into English.

[–] undefined@links.hackliberty.org 7 points 5 days ago (3 children)

How would you explain the Japanese? I’m only curious because something that draws me to the language is its “common sense” approach to pronunciation.

Super basic example: か ka が ga

When they import words from other languages the phonetic interpretation makes so much more sense to me. This actually drives me away from learning a lot of European languages.

[–] wieson@feddit.org 7 points 5 days ago

Nah man, that's just English.

Other European languages are mostly completely phonetic with exceptions. English is a mess.

You would just have to learn the clusters. Like in French "eaux" makes an /o/ sound, but it's always that same sound, wherever you encounter it.

Polish looks like letter salad for the uninitiated, but is also consistent in its own rules. Cz = tsh, sz = sh and so on. Once you've cracked the code, it's not difficult to pronounce polish words.

[–] Dasus@lemmy.world 15 points 5 days ago (6 children)

I’m only curious because something that draws me to the language is its “common sense” approach to pronunciation.

Ever looked at Finnish? I know a lot of people say of a lot of their own languages that "we say things like they're written", but we really do. There's like one phone (linguistics term, not telephone) in the language. It's the velar nasal that is in the word "language", ironically. Other than that, purely phonetic. You can put any word in front of me and I'll pronounce it the same way any other Finn would, where as in English, asking "how do you pronounce that" is common as hell.

Anyway, look at some of these examples:

A horse = hevonen [ˈheʋonen]

Peasoup = hernekeitto [ˈherneˌkːei̯tːo]

Come = tule! [ˈtuˌle]

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Help:IPA/Finnish

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[–] tiredofsametab@fedia.io 9 points 5 days ago (3 children)

Japanese does have plenty of exceptions regarding kana -> pronounciation, though it's better than English. Tons of readings for kanji is also a thing (particularly with proper nouns being crazy).

For just kana orthography vs pronounciation example, n before certain things gets pronounced like an m (see 新聞 しんぶん shinbun -> shimbun).

'i' and 'u' frequently get devoiced (classic example is です desu sounding like dess). 靴下 くつした kutsushita is a fun one. Even my wife didn't realize the devoicing as a native speaker.

There are more than I'm forgetting at the moment, but those are the common ones.

For kanji you have 百 hyaku (hundred) 二百 ni-hyaku (two hundred), so three hundred 三百 should be san-hyaku, right? Nope! San-byaku (with that n -> m transition here, too). There are tons of these.

[–] SkunkWorkz@lemmy.world 1 points 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago) (1 children)

Also the hiragana は(ha) を(wo). If they are a suffix particle they are pronounced wa and o respectively

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[–] palordrolap@fedia.io 54 points 6 days ago (1 children)

You know how the Romans wrote U? V.

Like J is a variant of I, U is a variant of V. Julius Caesar would have written his name IVLIVS

In some languages, especially English, the shapes were used interchangeably until well after the invention of the printing press. There are old, modern English dictionaries in existence where you'll find words with "i" and "j" sorted in the "wrong" order or intermixed, and likewise for "u" and "v" for precisely this reason.

The letter w was born during that mixed up time, and so it got the double-u name, despite the fact that the shape doesn't seem to match any more.

(For more fun, look up the letter wynn, "Ƿ" which if it had survived into Middle English, might be what we'd be using instead.)

[–] PapstJL4U@lemmy.world 20 points 6 days ago (1 children)

An example of the u|v mixup people can look at the Slovenian language.

They have the v where other languages have a u, but they say it like a u.

example: automobile vs avtomobil

[–] gregor@gregtech.eu 8 points 6 days ago

The 2nd Slovenian in this thread, stuff is getting interesting.

[–] Shanedino@lemmy.world 27 points 5 days ago (2 children)

I write my "w"s like "uu". With curves.

[–] toynbee@lemmy.world 44 points 5 days ago (3 children)

Must make it challenging to express "uwu."

[–] LemmyKnowsBest@lemmy.world 9 points 5 days ago (1 children)

Oh you're gonna love learning how to write Russian cursive.

[–] toynbee@lemmy.world 7 points 5 days ago (1 children)

I'm going to?

It's not impossible, but I don't really plan to have to.

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[–] trainden@lemmy.blahaj.zone 7 points 5 days ago

𝓊𝓌𝓊 :3

[–] Etterra@lemmy.world 10 points 5 days ago (11 children)

That's how you write it in cursive. You know for us that are old enough to remember what cursive was.

[–] bstix@feddit.dk 6 points 5 days ago

"uu" ends on a down stroke. W ends on an upstroke, just like the difference between u and v.

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[–] Chenzo@lemmy.world 14 points 6 days ago (1 children)
[–] BearOfaTime@lemm.ee 2 points 6 days ago

Hahaha, history of the world!

[–] bluGill@fedia.io 11 points 6 days ago

just after 1600 the letters u an v switched. So if you read something written in 1590 it would use words like 'haue' (have) and heauie (heavy). This was two different unrelated switches somewhat seperated in time not an actual trade.

[–] Kolanaki@yiffit.net 9 points 6 days ago (5 children)

A lower case w in handwriting is more uu shaped, at least.

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