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Without knowing the author or their reasons for saying that, I would say that they have it wrong entirely. The majority of governments before the US almost always had some level of theocracy attached to it. We took our independence from a man who quite literally was pretending to be God's representative on earth.
Within that context, its very hard to see the constitution as intending anything other than a full divorce between politics and religion.
At the time of the Constitution there were several states with official state religions (Pennslyvania, Maryland, RI etc...) Separation of Church and state was more of making sure that the Federal Governent didn't impose a religion upon the states themselves.
Odd because Madison who wrote the establishment clause formed it specifically to stop his state from having government funded religious schools.
The founding fathers had a significantly more progressive, more secular view of what the American society and government could and should be than the general population or even the general upper class.
Additionally I believe Madison ended up using a Virginia state religious freedom law to oppose religious school in the state.
While the language of the first Amendment should have banned state religion based solely on it's text. It didn't based on it's interpretation.
Pennsylvania and Rhode Island never had established churches; both were founded in part as havens for religious dissenters.
There's a list here on Wikipedia.
Were any of those States allowed to keep their state religions after the ratification of the constution or did they immediately start following the law and separated their recognition of a church being the state religion?
But yes, the constitution outright was outlawing the formation of theocratic arms of the state.
All of them kept them. For example Mass had a state religion until 1833. Most kept them until the mid to late 1800s when the amount of Irish Catholic and German/Lutheran immigrants made it clear that if they kept a state religion that it wasn't going to remain theirs.
Most of the state churches were disestablished before the Bill of Rights was ratified in 1791; Connecticut and Massachusetts being the exceptions.
It appears 1833 is when Massachusetts formally adopted their state constitution, so that is likely the reason in.that case, hut I will look more into it.
As a European, even though I know of the separation of church and state in the US, I feel that religion in politics still is very important in the states.
I mean that most candidates are very publicly religious and I have the idea that religious affiliation is still very important in the electoral vote, more so than where I live.
Correct me if I'm wrong, by the way, but I don't know what religion most of our politicians abide by, except those in a religious party. Where I would think that in America, if a candidate were non religious it would affect electability.
You are 100% right, here is a study from 2016 which shows being atheist hurts worse than being muslim.
Yes, but in the US we don't make our leader the head of a state religion when they take office.
That is what the Brits do. And, quite frankly, when Henry VIII made that move to get out from under papal control, I'd say it was a pretty progressive act.
But my comment was about how important the religiosity of political candidates is in an electoral correct. I have little insight into the importance of religious status of candidates in Britain, but I don't think the British electorate really cares is someone is Catholic.