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Just as an fyi it's first use is in 1881 as interchangeably anti Judaic and anti semitic.
The use of anti semitic to mean anti Judaic is in fact bigoted as fuck. The word is literally taken from a racist who thought openly that Arabs were lesser than a Jew and didn't care he was throwing them under the bus right alongside Jews. Just say anti Judaic since it's actually accurate to an inarguable level and doesn't make some weird bigoted class system.
The person we are responding to has an agenda. They aren’t in it to exchange ideas, they are in it to force you to accept their view of world. This person is offended personally that we don’t automatically agree.
There's tons of that here, same as Reddit just more echo chambers.
You notice it when you’re downvoted heavily and go back an hour later to see that you’ve been voted into the low positives again. It’s really sad how people astroturf so often.
I don't care about downvotes, I find it funny more often than not especially if they come with a ban for a odd reason.
This Lemmy instance seems to be pretty light on bans but others are not so much.
Many Jewish organizations have advocated using the term "Jew hate" in order to avoid the linguistically and historically problematic "antisemitism" or "anti-Semitism," but I am skeptical of the success.
By the way, you are close, but to clarify: the term was originated by Wilhelm Marr, who founded the Antisemiten-Liga (League of Anti-Semites) in 1879. This organization was not concerned with Semites in general, but with Jews in particular, as evinced by publications such as "Do not choose a Jew!" "Jew's Mirror," and "The War of the Jews." You are absolutely right in that it is bigoted and coined by a bigot.
I'm for anti Judaic, follows the same form but it's accurate.
https://www.etymonline.com/word/anti-Semitism
No I'm correct, it want used until 1881 not 1879 and Wilhelm was scared of Jews he however didn't think much of and disliked arabs. He only added specificity to make sure people knew he was against semites generally and Jews specifically. I dunno if you've actually read his book but it makes it pretty clear.
I'm not sure where they are getting the date - maybe that was the first use in English? The group was founded in 1879. The term (at least in German) traces to that date.
I don't speak German and I haven't read any of his works, so I appreciate your educating me on that point. If there is an English-language resource I can learn more about his anti-Arab views, please share it. TIA
They sourced it boss. It's the first published use, could it have been used before? Sure, we just have evidence of it.
I have a translated copy somewhere, I'll dig to see if I can find it.
I'm confused about the reply - is it possible you missed a word? In any case, you can see from the source I mentioned that the word dates from at least 1879 in German print, but again, we are arguing about 2 years. It looks like Douglas Harper made a small error on his excellent website, but no one's perfect. Again, I appreciate you taking the time to share. Which book are you referring to though? He has several as I mentioned.
(see also Encyclopedia Britannica, German Digital Library, Brill)
Dictionaries aren't great with etymology just as an fyi.
The league was forged in 79, correct. The word wasn't used in a known publication that we can verify until 1881, first known publication is always the winner in etymology because publication generally equals acceptance. I dunno if you've seen mean girls but it's "fetch" in example of you get my meaning.
You're being very confusing now. I didn't say anything about a dictionary in our conversation. I sent you links from a research encyclopedia, a scholarly series, and two different records of the primary source. Did you have trouble viewing them? Let me know if you need others or if there is a problem I'm missing. Sorry if I'm asking you to simplify things too much as this is not my area of study.
Were you able to find the name of that book by the way? I have not seen any translations online, but in the German I have not been able to find any references to Arabs at all. It would help if I knew where you were looking.
Britannica is both a dictionary and an encyclopedia bud.
It's Wilhelm's book dude, your citing its author who coined the term in the later book after creating the society like three years earlier.
Der Sieg des Judenthums über das Germanenthum – Vom nichtconfessionellen Standpunkt aus betrachtet.
Der Sieg des Judenthums über das Germanenthum is only one of a half-dozen books and other publications Marr wrote. It does not discuss, nor even mention Arabs.
Thanks anyway. Have a good one.
It does but sure, have a nice night.
You are mistaken, once again. I'm not sure why you continually double down on easily disproven facts, even after seeing evidence.
There is a brief passage about the "Jewish Press" siding with Turkey in the Russo-Turkish War, but that is framed entirely as a criticism of the "Jewish press," not a criticism of the Turks. It makes no mention of Arabs whatsoever.
Marr references "Semites" or "Semitism" (etc.) 26 times in the work, and those are explicit, exclusive references to Jews or the Jewish people all 26 times. This is all plain for anyone to see. The entire work is publicly available. I'm sorry, but there doesn't seem to be anything I can learn from you on this subject.
What disproof? Nuh uh isn't a refutation.
Dude I'm not going to explain to you how to read nuance that Ctrl f doesn't give.
You already said good day, are you going to say that every time and keep contradicting yourself?