DesGrieux

joined 1 year ago
[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Literally none of those things are predictions for the 2020s. Those are just issues from 24 years ago with suggested (neoliberal) solutions.

Germany largely addressed those concerns as you can see from the huge uptick in economic activity starting in 2000. The article did not predict the 2008 crisis, it did not predict the crisis with Russian gas, and so I'm having a hard time understanding why you're trying to slip this by people outside of a history community and acting like it's relevant.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 0 points 1 year ago (7 children)

They discuss the trends,

You need to be more specific. Can you copy and paste one?

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago (11 children)

What predictions? They're making predictions about the next year... in 1999, and not many specific ones either, just saying prospects are bleak. I don't see any predictions about the 2020s.

In fact, German GDP has nearly tripled since this was written. The only months of no growth were during 2008 and COVID and Germany outperformed all its neighbors. They didn't predict any of the conditions for either of those crises.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago (13 children)

This article is from 1999. So just 24 years too late.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago

It is not incorrect.

his plays marked major shifts in the style of writing for the english language,

True, that is perfectly in line with what I said and contradicts the statement that he "made changes. "making changes" is not the same thing as "marking major shifts".

many writers after him adopted his style and the new mechanics he was making in his plays.

Many would imitate his style. But we also know very little about the styles that influenced Shakespeare. New mechanics? Not sure what you mean by that. He did not alter the grammar of English nor did he invent words. When people claim he "invented" words or phrases, what they really mean is that his works are the first recorded example. That is not the same thing as "inventing."

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago

I never thought that these two could be pronounced the same.

Yes, English spelling is very misleading.

I pronounce of as in office

That would be a mistake in all dialects of English. It is always pronounced with a /v/ sound and the vowel is a schwa. 've is also a schwa plus /v/.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 2 points 1 year ago

I don't see how it was a far-right revolution. The president resigned after he refused to follow through on his promise to build closer ties with the EU which was one of his campaign promises. Afterwards they elected a Russian speaking Jew to lead them. Where are these far-right policies and leaders?

I do see far-right policies in Russia. Torture, rule by decree, banning words like "war", arresting journalists and political opponents, poisoning people, invading sovereign countries.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago (2 children)

"US provocation" just means "sovereign countries signing treaties Russia doesn't want them to sign."

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago

Yes, but HIMAR is pronounced like "high-mar". So they don't sound the same. And they only look the same if you choose to write ح as "h" instead of "7" or some other letter that conveys that sound accurately.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

English spelling errors are common because English is not written phonetically. If you fix that, you reduce the errors, not increase them. Spelling mistakes would still occur to some degree (ultimately because one dialect's pronunciation must be chosen for the written standard) but it would still be an improvement.

Imagine if anglophone students could learn to read and write in 2 years like their peers in Spanish and German speaking countries (many dozens of others) instead of 10.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 4 points 1 year ago

Jesus Christ make it stop.

[–] DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works 7 points 1 year ago

It's because "should've" and "should of" are pronounced the same. It doesn't make sense because they're just writing what they hear instead of thinking "I'm using the contraction of the auxiliary verb 'have'"..

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