this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
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They didn't convert anything to anything, and the 1.010010001... number isn't binary
then it's not relevant to the question as it is not pi.
The question is
Since pi is infinite and non-repeating, would it mean...
Then the answer is mathematically, no. If X is infinite and non-repeating it doesn't.
If a number is normal, infinite, and non-repeating, then yes.
To answer the real question "Does any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers appear somewhere in Pi?"
The answer depends on if Pi is normal or not, but not necessarily