this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
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How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

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[โ€“] orcrist@lemm.ee 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Please read it all again. They didn't rely on the conversion. It's just a convenient way to create a counterexample.

Anyway, here's a simple equivalent. Let's consider a number like pi except that wherever pi has a 9, this new number has a 1. This new number is infinite and doesn't repeat. So it also answers the original question.

[โ€“] Umbrias@beehaw.org 2 points 21 hours ago (1 children)

"please consider a number that isnt pi" so not relevant, gotcha. it does not answer the original question, this new number is not normal, sure, but that has no bearing on if pi is normal.

[โ€“] spireghost@lemmy.zip 2 points 18 hours ago* (last edited 18 hours ago) (1 children)

OK, fine. Imagine that in pi after the quadrillionth digit, all 1s are replaced with 9. It still holds

[โ€“] Umbrias@beehaw.org 1 points 15 hours ago

"ok fine consider a number that still isn't pi, it still holds." ??