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Since Pi is infinite and non-repeating, would that mean any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers should appear somewhere in Pi? (lemmy.dbzer0.com)

submitted 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago) by Melatonin@lemmy.dbzer0.com to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

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[–] kogasa@programming.dev 4 points 4 days ago

Your first sentence asserts the claim to be proved. Actually it asserts something much stronger which is also false, as e.g. 0.101001000100001... is a non-repeating decimal which doesn't include "2". While pi is known to be irrational and transcendental, there is no known proof that it is normal or even disjunctive, and generally such proofs are hard to come by except for pathological numbers constructed specifically to be normal/disjunctive or not.