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No lawyer, but so often you'll see a judge discuss the intent of the law vs. the letter of the law and make judgement on that, sometimes helping to change the law in question. Here we have a case where the argument is that he isn't paying someone to vote a certain way or even to vote, so it's not technically breaking existing law. But we all see what's going on, so the intent is clear.
Nothing will happen to him mainly because of him being untouchable, plus the time frame. This just needs to serve as a lesson to act on for the future and get the laws caught up with the times, where absolutely the rich and powerful are influencing political direction in so many ways, and have been for a long time. It needs to stop.
It’s illegal to offer someone something of value, which explicitly includes lottery entries, in exchange for their being registered to vote.
No idea why there’s a “may be” about any of this.
Could that depend on state law, since states control the actual election processes? I would think if it was universally written that clear then actual justice officials would be saying so.
I wish I had the statute at hand. Maybe I saw it on a Glenn Kirschner video? I'll try and look it up later, but I know for sure it is written down somewhere.
What gets me is how even if there isn't a hard law, the response should be to cease the activities because they are such a gray area, not this vague "oh gee, this might be a problem maybe".
Found it.
https://electionlawblog.org/?p=146397
You know what his loophole is? He's not offering money TO vote or GET registered, he's just making the terms of the lottery be that you have to BE registered. Again, it's obvious, but by the letter I think it avoids this.