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Why isn't it "multiple scleroses"? (lemmy.world)

submitted 1 month ago by slaughtermouse@lemmy.world to c/nostupidquestions@lemmy.ca

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[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 8 points 1 month ago

Because that "multiple" doesn't refer to multiple hardening (σκλήρωσῐς/sklḗrōsis) events, but rather to hardening as something uncountable happening in multiple spots.

It's roughly "multiple hardening", note how the lack of a plural doesn't feel off in this one either.

For reference, in languages showing adjective-noun agreement, the adjective gets the singular (e.g. Portuguese "esclerose múltipla" - the plural would be "escleroses múltiplas").