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Russell Brand allegations question from non American (www.theguardian.com)

submitted 1 year ago by El_Dorado@beehaw.org to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

36 comments fedilink hide all child comments

I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn't help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don't get me wrong I don't know much about the guy and what he did or didn't do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I'd be happy if someone could explain me.

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[–] redballooon@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Depends on the contract between that man and YouTube. Most countries are strong in enforcing contract terms.

[–] roguetrick@kbin.social 5 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

The idea that Google would give anyone a contract that says something other than "we'll fuck you if we feel like it." Hahahaha.

[–] redballooon@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

True, but that comment was still badly conceived. Because pretty much all countries would absolutely crack down on a platform, should there be a contract that states that there must be a conviction, and no morality clause. This can absolutely legally be in a contract.