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Russell Brand allegations question from non American (www.theguardian.com)

submitted 1 year ago by El_Dorado@beehaw.org to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn't help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don't get me wrong I don't know much about the guy and what he did or didn't do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I'd be happy if someone could explain me.

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[–] BoBTFish@kbin.social 12 points 1 year ago

"Innocent until proven guilty" very specifically applies to punishment by the courts and government (which would be UK courts in this case). Everyone else can still think he's a sleazebag and want nothing to do with him without knowing exactly which crimes he may have committed.

I could absolutely be fired by my employer for harassing colleagues in a way that wouldn't be outright illegal. Same here for streaming companies, traditional TV production companies, etc not wanting to work with him.