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Does intolerating intolerant people makes us intolerant? why? (lemmy.ml)

submitted 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) by hammsvietro@lemmy.ml to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[–] miguel@lemmy.ml 2 points 2 years ago

No, it does not. Tolerance as a form of Justice (which is the ultimate term/entity that defines right and wrong) is a social construct, not a axiom:

As an abstract term it is meaningless, it needs a context.
Ethics/moral (ultimate terms/entities that define societies/individuals behavior) are determinants, not the measure (tolerance). And these are variables, not constants.
Tolerance is not an axiomatic term; there is no a formal, systemic way to test its truth and/or falsity. In other words, it can be used in any context, adapted to be true, false, or both, and it never contradicts itself, can contradict the context, or violate other logical statements: a paradox.

Bonus

Tolerance, as we know it today (liberal term) appears in Western philosophy around the 15th century (relatively recent) adapted especially to Protestantism by Kant and Hegel. But the abuse of this term came with the work of Karl Popper: The Open Society and its Enemies (1945). An attempt to systematize the study of the behavior of human societies from a very biased (colonial) western point of view. Being a work with a lack of scientific rigor (it does not include the study of the modes of production) and measuring the limiting (tolerance) behavior of society, from a puritanical liberal perspective of tolerance, it reaches such absurd conclusions as that communism (socialism) and Nazism (fascism) are essentially the same.