this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2023
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Economics

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Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

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[–] soviettaters@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago (2 children)

So...who should own the land instead?

[–] DaSaw@midwest.social 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

The occupant should own the land. Absentee landlordism shouldn't be a thing.

[–] soviettaters@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago

Ah, well OP said "landowners" in general

[–] PowerCrazy@lemmy.ml -4 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Well your name has "soviet" in it, so maybe look at the place landowners had in various "soviet" nation states.

[–] soviettaters@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago

So...the government should own all land?