this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2023
260 points (86.1% liked)

Economics

1695 readers
28 users here now

founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
 

Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] Cleverdawny@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago

I doubt that. If a properly is salable and isn't rentable, a landlord will generally just sell it.