this post was submitted on 17 Jul 2024
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[–] HatchetHaro@lemmy.blahaj.zone 37 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago) (2 children)

to be fair, though, 1 and 0 are just binary representations of values, same as decimal and hexadecimal. within your example, we'd absolutely find the entire works of shakespeare encoded in ascii, unicode, and lcd pixel format with each letter arranged in 3x5 grids.

[–] driving_crooner@lemmy.eco.br 33 points 4 months ago (2 children)

Doesn't, the binary pattern 10101010 dosen't exists on that number, for example.

[–] leverage@lemdro.id 7 points 4 months ago (1 children)

You can encode base 2 as base 10, I don't think anyone is saying it exists in binary form.

[–] twei@discuss.tchncs.de 2 points 4 months ago

Well it's infinite so it has to I guess

[–] TdotMatrix@lemmy.ml 4 points 4 months ago (1 children)
[–] Turun@feddit.de 15 points 4 months ago

No, because you can't mathematically guarantee that pi contains long strings of predetermined patterns.

The 1.101001000100001... example by the other user was just that - an example. Their number is infinite, but never contains a 2. Pi is also infinite, but does it contain the number e to 100 digits of precision? Maybe. Maybe not. The point is, we don't know and we can't prove it either way (except finding it by accident).

[–] CanadaPlus@lemmy.sdf.org 7 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

Actually, there'd only be single pixels past digit 225 in the last example, if I understand you correctly.

If we can choose encoding, we can "cheat" by effectively embedding whatever we want to find in the encoding. The existence of every substring in a one of a set of ordinary encodings might not even be a weaker property than a fixed encoding, though, because infinities can be like that.