this post was submitted on 27 Jun 2024
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When I look at my gut, I ask myself the same question 😭
Well Liebniz said it's because of a necessary being bearing the reason for its existence within itself, if that helps.
No, because it's circular logic. There's no reason for a necessary being to exist before it does, and no evidence that one does in the real world.
My gut is circular, that's bullying 🤣
It is, and that's inherent in the problem under consideration, the problem of the 'uncaused caused' or the 'first mover'. Logic can either be A) circular or B) not-circular. Any not-circular logic must explain each element by referring to a prior, but then you've got an infinite regress. So you're trapped in a dilemma: do you want the circular logic or the infinite regress? Liebniz's choice was to say that God was inherently existent, like when Lao Tzu said 道法 自然
Correct. It is necessary: it is self-causing. It does not stand upon a 'reason', unlike everything else in conditioned existence.
You're assuming it is subject to the laws of linear time and causation, and point out how that assumption leads to a contradiction. But Liebniz's God is not subject to the laws of linear time and causation. Which is the whole point of positing it: because if it were subject to those laws: infinite regress.
Well the world exists, so all this existence must have some cause. That was the starting point of the conversation: Why is there something instead of nothing?