this post was submitted on 03 Jan 2024
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[–] Infiltrated_ad8271@kbin.social 10 points 11 months ago (2 children)

To defend that israel does not commit war crimes, I have seen zionists claim that if civilians are used for military purposes (involuntary human shield), they become valid military targets ._.

[–] Altofaltception@lemmy.world 6 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Could that same argument be applied to army reservists in a country with mandatory military service?

[–] agitatedpotato@lemmy.world 2 points 11 months ago

I'd say that arguement is stronger because they had their whole life to prepare not to serve a genocidal army, instead of being made to participiate in war with no choice or warning. If we evaluate both using the metric of Free and Prior Informed Consent we see one is measurably worse.

[–] kick_out_the_jams@kbin.social -3 points 11 months ago* (last edited 11 months ago) (2 children)

It's because of the Geneva Convention (origin of the modern concept of war crimes.)

It's designed to be applied mutually, if only one side does then it's basically non-functioning.

[–] Infiltrated_ad8271@kbin.social 5 points 11 months ago (1 children)

I understand that many of the humanitarian safeguards and international law can be disadvantageous when only one side gets things right.
But those are important guarantees, they are even used to differentiate the supposedly "good and civilized", if they are discarded every time they are inconvenient, aren't they just dead letter?

[–] Reddfugee42@lemmy.world 1 points 11 months ago

Oh, war criminal talk. Gotcha.