this post was submitted on 14 Nov 2023
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[–] KepBen@lemmy.world 14 points 11 months ago (3 children)

Why is it the rich never starve if it's just a totally unaccountable natural disaster?

[–] Kusimulkku@lemm.ee 3 points 11 months ago

Rich usually have more resources and ability to purchase them at elevated prices. Hope that helps

[–] Bondrewd@lemmy.world 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Because they have money duuh.

[–] KepBen@lemmy.world 0 points 11 months ago* (last edited 11 months ago) (1 children)

So it's less of a natural disaster and more of an economic disaster? I wonder why people would blame governments for that...

[–] Bondrewd@lemmy.world 0 points 11 months ago* (last edited 11 months ago) (1 children)

It is like miles away from the intentional economical engineering we are talking about. Still not sure why you are so bent on trying to wiggle them into a comparsion between regimes and personnel more direct, intentional and immediate like Mao or Stalin.

If you dont distinguish from those, then why even have a debate on them?

The joke implied that the question intended to ask one or very few directly involved personnel and you disregarded that. Thats it.

[–] KepBen@lemmy.world -1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Right sure, when the British intentionally abuse Ireland and India it's really just a whoopsie-daisy.

[–] Bondrewd@lemmy.world 2 points 11 months ago

Should I really do the same kind of jumping to conclusions?

Are you saying that the largest completely man made famine ever does not really deserve that much of a recognition?

[–] LicenseToChill@lemdro.id 1 points 11 months ago

The rich and the party cadres